Mass Murder in Venezuela

You made the claim I’m asking you to support it.

Been awhile. Was pretty thorough though for my clearances back in the day.

Pulse nightclub is a more direct comparison.

To which I can show more than a hundred killed in other nightclubs in similar panics to this one.

Lets start here…

The purpose of a tear gas canister isn’t to kill anyone. Calling this a mass murder is a little disingenuous at best. Mass casualties, sure…but not murder. That would be like claiming that the guy who causes a 40 car pileup on the interstate that results in deaths a murderer. At worst they would be charged with negligent homicide or manslaughter.

Tossing a tear gas canister into a crowd and panic insuing isn’t murder. Firing a weapon at people in a crowd is. That this distinction has to be pointed out is kinda sad.

It doesn’t matter what the purpose behind the production of the teargas canister is, it was used to kill these people who died in the ensuring panic.

You would absolutely be charged in this country with one count of murder for each of the deaths resulting in a similar situation under the felony murder rule.

Let me get this straight…

If the cops show up to shut down a club, and toss tear gas to control the riot, and people freak the ■■■■ out and 50 of them end up trampled to death, they are subject to murder charges? Really? Don’t think so.

The tear gas was not used to kill anyone. The panic from the canister created panic, and in the panic, people died. They aren’t the same thing.

The cops did not lob the teargas canister into the club.

Inciting a riot or panic is a crime in the US. Doing so by throwing teargas into an overcrowded club would be a felony.

Every person who died as a direct result of that felony can result in murder charges being laid on the offender.

Yep…

Felony-Murder Rule
A Rule of Law that holds that if a killing occurs during the commission or attempted commission of a felony (a major crime), the person or persons responsible for the felony can be charged with murder.

Generally an intent to kill is not necessary for felony-murder. The rule becomes operative when there is a killing during or a death soon after the felony, and there is some causal connection between the felony and the killing.

The felony-murder rule originated in England under the Common Law. Initially it was strictly applied, encompassing any death that occurred during the course of a felony, regardless of who caused it. Therefore, if a police officer attempting to stop a Robbery accidentally shot and killed an innocent passerby, the robber could be charged with murder… .

Latin American leftism… Let’s import it as fast as we can. If you don’t like Venezuela as an example, there’s the 116 political murders in Mexico this year.

How would you compare it to waterboarding?

The purpose of a gun isn’t to kill good guys.

They asphyxiated.

11 of them asphyxiated.

But they have single payer, so complete decay of society is just fine…

Do you really believe that?

Except Murder and starvation under the leftist govt of Ven, happens everyday…

Yep…

So?..