Yes- it is.
Feds have no juridstiction over state and local elections.
Non-citizens have been voting in some of those since this nation was founded.
Separation refers to branches, not level.
You forgot the state government seats that were won by democrats.
Fine…federalism then, Mr. Nitpicker.
Feds have no juridstiction over state and local elections, some of whom have allowed non-citizens to cote since the founding of this Republic.
Nah i was mistaken. Mitch is that you? Having trouble going out to dinner lately?
Federalism refers to the confederation of states. Of course it has since been corrupted.
Where have they voted since the founding? Not saying you’re wrong, I’d like to read it.
We stopped being a confederation of states when we adopted the constitution.
Kinda the point.
What House is the op referring to JayJay?
Funny watching these nutjob Democrats in congress push stuff that’s not even getting onto the Senate floor, what a waste of time n money, oh yeah, that’s 1st step to being a true Democrat in office huh?
Let’s look at your statement and then replace Democrats with Republicans and use repealing the ACA from 2010 to 2016 for context. Glass houses and whatnot.
See it coming? They were voting in local elections when George W Bush was president and probably before that.
Lets not, the only reason stuff didn’t get done was because of RINO’s like Paul Ryno Ryan and others like him, don’t fool yourself.
DACA program people…
Allan
Some people need to learn our Country is a Constitutional Republic, NOT a Democracy.
What’s the difference and where in the Constitution does it say one must be a citizen to vote in local elections?
No. They are here illegally. The action has been deferred.
I haven’t found it. I’m sure someone can come up with some justification for requiring localities to only allow citizens of the US to participate in local elections.
Actually, the Constitution says to arm its citizens(Militia) to fight invaders(illegal people) of our country, look it up
