So, instead of answering my question, you deflect and obfuscate.
Where in our federal Constitution has a power been delegated to authorize our federal government to prohibit a state to make distinctions in law based upon sex, or more important, to prohibit citizens to make distinctions based upon sex which would impinge on the fundamental right of people being free to mutually agree in their contracts and associations?
JWK
The Democrat Party Leadership detests people being left free to mutually agree in their contracts and associations.
And so, in Gorsuch’s authoritarian mind, the people’s inalienable right to mutually agree in their contracts and associations must give way to 7 million sexual deviant individuals who live and work in the United States.
But the law passed by Congress usurps authority over a subject matter not granted, excepting of course with respect to voting.
Gorsuch ignores the proper method for change ___ Article V ___ and in so doing has subverted our Constitutionally limited “Republican Form of Government”.
To pretend the people who wrote it were talking about who you preferred to have sex with or what sex you felt you are is absurd. When they used the word sex it was in reference to one thing and one thing only, biological sex.
And there is nothing in the 14th Amendment forbidding distinctions based upon sex. The only wording in our federal Constitution forbidding distinctions based upon sex is in the 19th Amendment. An attempt to expand forbidding distinctions based upon sex was the Equal Rights Amendment. But the Amendment failed to gather sufficient support.
The majority opinion in Bostock v. Clayton County, Georgia , ignores the proper method for change ___ Article V ___ and in so doing has subverted our Constitutionally limited “Republican Form of Government”.