Whatever in any Bible accurately conveys the sense intended in the original text of a biblical book is God’s word. Some Bibles have more of God’s word in them than others. We do still have God’s word in the form of Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic manuscripts. Translations of these vary in accuracy.
It goes back to the question of why the creator of the WHOLE UNIVERSE can’t be clear about his message.
It’s almost as if men made up the whole thing and always have to come up with excuses for God.
No, apparently you don’t know.
What part of word-by-word translation don’t you understand?
(NIV is sentence-by-sentence…)
This is the reason that the NIV is easy to read, but difficult to understand, and the NASx viceversa.
That His message isn’t 100% clear does not logically imply God couldn’t make it 100% clear.
Ask and ye shall receive…
What isn’t clear? The message is as it has always been. Love God and put Him first. Love others as much as you love yourself.
Jesus said the same. Put God first, and work on your relationship(s) with those close to you.
Rabbis have said early and often: Love God, love your fellow man. The rest of scripture is simply commentary.
Don’t let the commentary confuse you.
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Thanks LB. I had the copyright, but rather than just give it, I was interested in what other Christians thought of it. Why, or maybe a better question is HOW can man copyright God’s word? Who’s intellectual property is it to copyright?
The 10 commandments are simply commentary?
Yes. The first few deal with love of God. The remainder, love of one’s fellow man.
Copyright laws allow copyright on translations as well as original non-derivative work. I am not a Copyright lawyer, but the issue probably has more to do with the original KJV being printed under Cum Privilegio and thus would fall under public domain internationally, while the printing in the UK is done under letters patent.
The difference in translations is what I’m asking about. In the Revelation scripture I gave, the KJV links love of Christ with obeying his commandments. In the NIV, love of Christ is linked with washing our robes. If you wished to follow God’s word and wanted to show your love for Christ, how would you personally interpret “wash your robes”?
I myself grew up in a non-denominational church that used the NIV. “Your robes” strikes me as having to do with the personas (acts) we put on every day.
Greek to English Interlinear reads: “Very truly, I tell you, whoever believes has eternal life.”
Jesus always pointed to God the Father, never Himself.
I trust the Greek to English Interlinear and the Septuagint -my two favorites.
I do not like the KJV
He is.
It’s the recipient who insists on confusion.
Happened to be in a discussion about this yesterday.
Interesting comment: Different translations offer different perspectives on the same message.
I know that leftwits have trouble with humour and metaphors, but really???
Here’s another difference.
Colosians 1:14 KJV “In whom we have redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD, even the forgiveness of sins.”
Colosians 1:14 NIV "In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.’
In the NIV, the necessity of Christ’s blood is omitted. If Christ’s shed blood is necessary, why is it left out here?
It is a reference to washing their robes in the blood of Christ, a reference to salvation through the blood of Christ, as referenced in Revelation 7:14. It is also alluded to in Zechariah 3:1,3 & 4 and in Revelations 19:13 as the bride of Christ being adorned in white robes.
Jesus referred to himself many times. In John 14:6 he said " I am the way, the truth and the life: no man cometh into the Father but by me "
I’m not really sure what you mean here…
Why don’t you like the KJV?
