True. And you are free to express your opinions.
Yeah, but we are talking about earth - an inanimate object.
If you were correct that Jesus was killed on Wednesday afternoon and rose on Saturday afternoon, and Jewish inclusive reckoning does not apply, please explain how you calculate that Jesus rose “after three days”. Mark 8:31
Please explain how Jesus rose “within three days”. Mark 14:58
Please explain how Jesus rose “on the third day”. Mark 9:31; 10:34.
You have said, “He was buried at the end of Wednesday, and raised at the end of Saturday. He was raised at the end of the Sabbath, which corresponds with the exact time He was buried.”
Every verse you partially quoted has the number three.
A baby is born. From the day he was born until the next day at that same time is “one day.” The next day at that same time is “two days.” The next day at that same time is “three days.” After the third day, that baby is now three days old.
Wednesday, Jesus was buried.
Thursday at that same time is “One Day.” Jesus was one full day in the tomb.
Friday at that same time is “Two Days.” Jesus had been two full days in the tomb.
Saturday at that same time is “Three Days.” Jesus had been three full days in the tomb.
Examine the resurrection passages without bias and you can clearly see that the writers refer to “the first of the week as the time when people went to the tomb and found it empty.”
The passages say nothing about the time he rose, only that He was gone.
If Christians want a “Lord’s Day” to congregate and conduct a “worship service,” do it. You are free to do so. It isn’t necessary to twist Scripture. When traditions are removed, the truth in Scripture shines through.
Then, by your reckoning, Mark 8:31 failed to happen. Jesus did not rise “after three days”.
He did by Jewish inclusive reckoning.
Did you expect the passages to read “before three days?”
Soon after Joshua and the Israelites entered the Promised Land, they waged battle against five armies. This happened about 3227 years ago.
12 Then spoke Joshua to the LORD in the day when the LORD gave the Amorites over to the men of Israel; and he said in the sight of Israel, "Sun, stand thou still at Gibeon, and thou Moon in the valley of Ai’jalon." 13 And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed, until the nation took vengeance on their enemies. Is this not written in the Book of Jashar? The sun stayed in the midst of heaven, and did not hasten to go down for about a whole day. 14 There has been no day like it before or since, when the LORD hearkened to the voice of a man; for the LORD fought for Israel. 15 Then Joshua returned, and all Israel with him, to the camp at Gilgal. 16 These five kings fled, and hid themselves in the cave at Makke’dah.
Researchers claim this story is the earliest account of annular eclipse that occurred 1207 BCE. The oldest eclipse ever recorded. There is some controversy over the truth of this conclusion.
The gospels use three terms in describing the duration of Jesus’ death: [on] the third day; within three days; and after three days. In fact, Mark uses all three. The only way to get them all fitting the facts is by using Jewish inclusive reckoning.
Like bankers do with interest and fees? (just a stray thought)
Jesus probably knew that you guys would try to use Jewish Inclusive reckoning to twist Scripture so he made it really plain when he said: “For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” Matthew 12:40
Three whole periods of darkness and three whole periods of light. It’s hard to get around that without calling Jesus a liar.
The New Covenant Scripture was written in Greek. It is pointless to say that it was written with Hebrew idioms.
New Covenant Greek is the language for the Gentile nations. Not Hebrew like the OCS. Jews ignore the New Covenant Scripture. They don’t believe Jesus is the Son of God - Messiah.
You need Jewish inclusive reckoning, not me. I will continue to use righteous reckoning.
I have asked you to explain how Jesus rose “after three days” using your method of reckoning. I am interested to understand how your methodology comports with what scripture actually says.
Matthew also uses “after three days”: Mt. 27:63.
That’s because I don’t understand your problem with the passages.
The doctor says that I must rest in bed and take medicine for three days and three nights - around the clock, and after three days I can get up.
After three days, I got up.
How else could the writers have worded it that you would be satisfied with?
Mark saying it in different ways reminds me of the language in the Revelation about the length of time Jerusalem would be under siege. John wrote that it would be 1260 days, 3 1/2 years and 42 months. The same length of time, spoken in three different ways so that God’s people would know exactly how long the war would last so that they would get out of Jerusalem before it was surrounded with armies and there would be no way to escape. God’s people understood and they escaped Jerusalem. That’s righteous reckoning.
From your post, I put in Bold: Please explain how Jesus rose “within three days”. Mark 14:58
Read that passage in context. Mark 14:55 "Now the chief priests and the whole council were looking for testimony against Jesus to put him to death, but they found none. For many gave false testimony against him, and their testimony did not agree. Some stood up and gave false testimony against him saying, “We heard him say, “I will destroy this temple that is made with hands, and in three days I will build another, not made with hands.” But even on this point, their testimony did not agree.”
Whatever Mark quoted here was said by Jesus’ false accusers. The rule of “rightly dividing the word of truth” applies here.
Mark 8:31 records Jesus as saying he would rise “after three days”. Something Jesus said is not untrue merely because a Pharisee also said it.
Other Gospels also have Jesus saying he would rise “within three days”. And I agree that “within three days” fits your methodology.
But dealing with "after three days’ requires you to adopt inclusive reckoning to explain it.
Why would Jesus contradict Himself?
“But he spoke of the temple of his body.” John 2:21
You were fast in response. I have edited my previous post.
Jesus does not contradict himself if one applies Jewish inclusive reckoning to all the Gospels.
This shouldn’t be complicated.
Mark 14:55 "Now the chief priests and the whole council were looking for testimony against Jesus to put him to death, but they found none. For many gave false testimony against him, and their testimony did not agree. Some stood up and gave false testimony against him saying, “We heard him say, “I will destroy this temple that is made with hands, and in three days I will build another, not made with hands.” But even on this point, their testimony did not agree.”
Mark said it was FALSE testimony. Jesus would not have said He would “destroy this temple that is made with hands.” His body was not made with hands.
I take Jesus’ warnings seriously. Jesus said there was a fatal flaw in the way the Ph.D.‘s of the law handled Scripture. The Jewish leaders of Jesus’ day were the doctors of the law. The Supreme Court - - the official interpreters of Scripture. Jesus referred to them as “those who sit on Moses’ seat.” He said do not do as they do. Matthew 23:2
Jesus does not contradict Himself. Period.
You are ignoring Mark 8:31. It was false testimony that Jesus mentioned “made with hands.” It was correct that he said “after three days”.