Actually I have been reading the KJV. Started a year ago…got as far as Samuel and then stuff intervened. Got back to it last week, started at the beginning and have reached Samuel again.
So I am very familiar with the KJV up to the end of Samuel 2 and I stand by everything I said. I wish you’d just address what I said point by point instead of referring to Bible passages for me to just read again.
For example, where is my misconception about Genesis 3:17?
It’s in the public domain, so I share it here:
17 And unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying, Thou shalt not eat of it: cursed is the ground for thy sake; in sorrow shalt thou eat of it all the days of thy life;
18 Thorns also and thistles shall it bring forth to thee; and thou shalt eat the herb of the field;
19 In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust shalt thou return.
Is God, or is God not, cursing ALL of Adam and Eve’s descendants - none of whom had anything to do with Adam and Eve eating from that tree?
When God warns Adam and Eve not to eat of the fruit of the tree of Good and Evil, he states:
(Again, Public domain so sharable here)
And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat:
17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.
Where in the above sentences does God say, "If you eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, I will curse all of your children for ever after to “eat in sorrow,” etc.?
He specifically tells Adam and Eve they will die. If you take the Bible literally, that’s what they should do, fall down dead. But instead God apparently means that they won’t die right away, but rather be cursed, and give birth to cursed children, and then die.
Then there’s God hardening Pharoah’s heart, nine times, so he can show off his power to prove to the Israelis how powerful he is.
in the KJV it doesn’t say specifically that he does it 9 times, but it does say he does it 4 or 5 times, and I think it’s safe to assume he did it the other 5 or 4 times as well.
Am I wrong about God telling the Israelis to “spoil” the Egyptians before they leave?