To someone barely scraping by on government assistance, do you really believe tax cuts have any meaning. To someone in that position what would that even mean?

Agreed and the answer is NO!

The mail?

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I don’t care if a crazy person votes but I do care if a crazy person has a gun. What about you?

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I’m talking about the third party dropping off the ballots. Where did that person get the ballots to be dropped off?

I’ll answer. Yes. This should be done, and in today’s technological age it’s pretty dumb that it already isn’t a thing.

Federal control being given to a power reserved for the states.

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The bundlers would greatly appreciate that. It would make their activity that much easier.

It seems to me that bribery isn’t the only way to coerce voters.

I’m not trying to claim that the GOP is above the bundling activity. I have no doubt if they had something attractive to offer they wouldn’t hesitate to use it. But by their very nature, they simply don’t have the promise of more big government assistance. The last thing those who are dependent on that assistance want to hear is about how they should pull themselves up by their bootstraps.

I care about both. I know consistency is a tough concept for the left which is why they govern like a bag of cats.

I’ll put it another way. Absolutely every restriction on firearm purchases and ownership makes sense for voting, or doesn’t, for the exact same reasons. Arguing otherwise is a futility because a person favors one constitutional right over another, and is inconsistent in their principles.

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Could you point out where in the Constitution this aspect of voting laws are “a power reserved for the states”?

Thank you in advance.

WW

The point is that today localities and States pretty much manage their own election laws. DEMs want those laws to be subservient to federal voting laws. More and bigger federal government. It should come as no surprise that the GOP would be against that kind of overreach by the federal government.

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I don’t think I would.

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I didn’t ask that.

The poster I asked said that election laws were “a power reserved for the states”. The only place that power can be reserved like that is in the Constitution. So where in the Constitution is this power reserved for the states?

I know where it is a power reserved for Congress to write laws governing federal elections as to the time, manner and place for the House and Senate at least. But not someplace in the Constitution that contradicts that.

WW

My bad. I’ll stay away from that one.

Except it’s not. States run elections, the federal government has the power to regulate the time, place and manner.

Do tax cuts have meaning to middle class and upper class people? Do farm bailout have meaning to farmers? Seems the “buying” of votes occurs from both sides.

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Tax cuts have meaning to everyone who gets one.

That person likely knows the voter, likely related. So they drop the absentee ballot off for them.